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adam @ Dec 8th 2007 6:43PM
Why is drivetrain loss assumed to be a percentage rather than a set amount of torque/horsepower?
mastersmite @ Dec 8th 2007 6:57PM
Drivetrain loss is based on the internal friction of the driveline. The loss is a varying amount because friction is a function of the force applied and the coefficient of friction of the , thus more power is loss as the force applied increases.
MikeW @ Dec 8th 2007 10:37PM
When gears mesh in the transmission, the efficiency isn't 100%. Not even straight cut gears are there.
So in the TR-6060 power flows down toward the countershaft via the front gear pair, then back up toward the primary axis. Except for 4th, which is direct drive & reverse-with adds another gear mesh, so the parity is odd.
Then the ring/pinion of the axle isn't close to 100%. There is a helix angle, and then the shaft axes are offset (hypoid)
So for a higher drivetrain efficiency you want to keep the number of gear meshes down.
Bad Bugatti Veyron! 4 gear meshes to get power to the rear axle.
http://www.gizmag.com/go/4909/picture/17749/
If they could have sent power through the valley of the block, the could have two total for the rear, and three for the front.